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Why does Na'vi have a vocative particle and not a vocative case, in keeping with the other case aspects of the language?
- Why not? Classical Arabic is the same. It has three cases (nominative, accusative, genitive) but uses a vocative particle, yaa. Na'vi doesn't have to be like Latin or Greek. Wm.annis 20:00, 4 January 2010 (UTC)